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Branham The Translator

John Collins6/18/2012 10:05:00 AMIf Rev. Branham stuck with the King James Version itself, things may have ended quite differently. When comparing the KJV to another version, he claims that the King James is closer to the original Greek.

Quote:
And the real translation in the King James, from the original Greek, it says--it says, "Verily, verily," means, "Absolutely, absolutely, I say unto you, that the Son can do nothing in Himself, but what He sees the Father doing: that doeth the Son likewise." 53-1120 DEMONOLOGY


He was not satisfied with staying with just what the King James said; he wanted to read from the original Hebrew and Greek translations. Again, had Rev. Branham stayed with this method, things would have ended quite differently. EVERYONE should study the original texts and learn for himself.

Quote:
Now, reading from the "Emphatic Diaglott" of the Greek translation, where I was at last evening, which is laying open before me now. That's the original translation from the Greek to the English. It doesn't go through other translators; it's--and other versions, it's right straight from the Greek to the English.
59-1219 QUESTIONS.AND.ANSWERS.ON.THE.HOLY.GHOST


Most followers today would be shocked to know that Rev. Branham used the Vatican Translation in order to understand his King James Version.

Quote:
Now, listen. Let me see--read here before we start the questions on the lexicon here. Now, from Vatican Translation, Volume 7, 190-1205: "It is {...}"
59-1219 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ON THE HOLY GHOST


The problem is, William Branham did not stick with the King James or study the original translations. He would use outside sources to teach things like a non-eternal hell.

Quote:
See the difference? The wicked has everlasting punishment, but "everlasting" is "a space of time." Now, if it would've been the same, it would've been written, "And these shall go away into everlasting punishment, the other shall go away into Everlasting Life." See? Or, "They shall go away into eternal punishment, and the other one into Eternal Life." See, if there's an eternal punishment, to be punished forever and ever, then he's an eternal--he's got Eternal Life; and the only one Eternal Life, and that comes from God. Everything without a beginning has no end; everything with a beginning has an end. See what I mean?
Now, the Scripture Itself that the--the dear person answered... Now, if you'll take it in the Lexicon, "And these shall go forth into ainion, cutting off, and into everla... into fire, the lake of fire."
Now, the word "a-i-n-i-o-n" means "a space of punishment," in the Greek Lexicon, right here, "space of punishment," or, "time of punishment." See? They shall go away into a time of punishment. The word is used, "a-i-n-i-o-n, ainion," which means "times, a time, a limited time." Then take it back into the--into the translation here, the English, "everlasting" is "a limited of time." See? It comes from the Greek, "a limit of time." The word "ainion," or "a-i-n-i-o-n, ainion" means "a limited time of punishment."
57-0925 QUESTIONS.AND.ANSWERS.ON.HEBREWS.1


This actually is a pagan Gnostic belief. In the same belief structure that says that the good one and the evil one were one day equal, it continues to build a foundation for a punishment that did not last forever.

The same word used here (for everlasting):
Quote:
Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels: (Matthew 25:41)


Is the same word used here (for eternal):

Quote:
But he shall receive an hundredfold now in this time, houses, and brethren, and sisters, and mothers, and children, and lands, with persecutions; and in the world to come eternal life. (Mark 10:30)



That word is aionios, which translated means without beginning and without end. Everlasting. Eternal. It means exactly the same as the KJV translated it, but was confusing to the lesser intelligent (like myself).

Evidently, the Diaglott was not in print, which made it easier for Rev. Branham to make these claims. How could they look it up for themselves when they could not read the translation on their own?

Quote:
I was reading and teaching in my church sometime ago upon Pentecost, in a little revival I had. Now, I've got an old Emphatic Diaglott of the original Greek translation, and it's the one--most outstanding things. I'd advise it to any of the clergymen. It's--it's out of print, but I think you can get in England. I'm not sure. But I have one; it's very old, and it brings it down just at the original Greek word, then it comes over on the other side, and just puts it, because in the Greek the verb is before the adverb.
60-0304 THIRSTING.FOR.LIFE


He evidently got some part of his translation from President Eisenhower

Quote:
One of the greatest man we got, when Eisenhower and great men of the world, Hollywood, all kinds of movie stars and everything calling for him, but hung right there in the meeting. He said, "I have been thirty-some-odd years getting this translation, not from the Vatican Greek, but from the Aramaic; right straight from that, from the Aramaic into the--the English." And he said, "I've spent all that time," he said, "I have just now walked into the place where I see God of the Bible moving." He said, "You know, Brother Branham, we can see signs and wonders, but we watch what voice the sign has. We Jews, we see a sign, but we watch the voice of the sign."
60-0417M GO.TELL


Rev. Branham also made claims to have used the Diaglott to prove his version of baptism in Jesus name only, falsifying the one scripture that truly contradicts that theory: When the men were asked to be baptized after they received the Holy Ghost.

Quote:
And someone asked me a question, here not long ago, put it on the platform: "Brother Branham, did you ever read the original? The Greek says that you receive the Holy Ghost when you believe."
I wish you'd bring me that Diaglott. I wish you'd bring me that Greek Lexicon that says that. It does not say that. It says, "Have you received the Holy Ghost since you believed?" not, "when you believed," but since you... I've got the Emphatic Diaglott of the original translation off of the Heb--of the--the--from a--Vatican City, of the original Greek. Then I've got the Aramaic and many of the others that proves that he said, "Have you received the Holy Ghost since you believed?"
60-0611B FELLOWSHIP


The actual translation from the Diaglott. Notice each word separated by hypen:

Quote:
He said - and - to - them - if - [the] Spirit - Holy - did you receive - having believed - moreover - to - him - but - not even - whether [a] - Spirit.


It is not "since you," it is "having believed." They already believed.

In the church ages, he claims to have studied the meaning of 'Sardis' in the 'Sardis Church Age.' He claimed that the Greek meaning for Sardis was 'the escaped one.'

Quote:
Now, the... Last night, the church age, the... being the Sardis Church Age, was really in the Greek was called, "the escaped one," but I believe in the English translation is "dead." Now, it was both a "dead" church and "an escaped one" because it was the church that had died under the papal reign in the 1500 there, or 1520, of the--of the great papal reign which we call the Dark Ages; where Christianity was at the lowest ebb it ever has been or ever will be, even in the Laodicean Church Age.
60-1210 THE.PHILADELPHIAN.CHURCH.AGE


The Greek word 'Sardeis' literally means "Sardis, an ancient city of Lydia in the province of Asia." It was a luxurious city, the capital of Lydia in Asia Minor. 'Sardis' was referred to as 'red ones,' because of the red Sardis stone. It does not mean 'dead' or 'escaped.'

Here is the major issue with Rev. Branham claiming to be his own translator. The idea was generated that the words spoken during baptism were the 'formula' (or incantation) for receiving the Holy Ghost. You could not receive the Holy Ghost by baptizing the way that Jesus described in Matthew, it must be the words spoken in Acts 2:38. Except for one thing: Branham's way is not the exact words in Acts 2:38. He adds the word "Lord" in the "formula," and then claims to have studied the Diaglott to get this interpretation of scripture.

Quote:
Now, looky here, my sisters, and you brethren who are present: Matthew said, "Father, Son, Holy Ghost." Now, if you 'all go get the Emphatic Diaglott of the Greek interpretation (original Greek interpretation from the Vatican. It happens to be that I have one; it's out of print now, I think), or any Greek translation, the right translation to Acts 2:38... Peter said, "Repent every one of you and be baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ." The King James Version just said, "in the name of Jesus Christ."; but in the Emphatic Diaglott it says, "In the name of the Lord Jesus Christ."
Now, when you Oneness brethren just baptize in the name of Jesus, there's just many Jesuses; but there's only... He was born Christ, the Son of God. That's His name, that's what He is. "Christ" means "the anointed one." Messiah, Christ. Now, "Jesus," eight days later He was given the name Jesus, when He was circumcised. And He is our Lord. So He is our Lord Jesus Christ. That's what He is.
61-0119A THE.WATER.BAPTISM


What most followers do not know is that this is NOT the translation from the Diaglott! The word "Lord" is not in the words of translation! Notice each word separated by hyphen.

Quote:
Peter - moreover - to - them - Repent - said - and - be baptized - each - of you - in - the - name - of Jesus - Christ - for the - forgiveness - of sins - your - and - you will receive - the - gift - of the - Holy - Spirit.


Another heresy is Branham's teaching that Jesus had to see visions in order to perform miracles. He denied the deity of Christ, just as Moffatt denied the deity of Christ.
Quote:
I cannot heal you. No, sir, nor nobody else can heal you. It's your own faith that does it. But if you'll realize that it's the same Jesus. When He was here on earth, He said, "I do nothing till the Father shows Me." Is that right, amongst the ministers? Saint John 5:19. Jesus, we'll think, never performed one miracle until God showed Him, not told Him, but showed Him by a vision, or the Bible told something wrong; Jesus told a lie. So He couldn't do it; He's God.
Jesus said in Saint John 5:19, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, the Son can do nothing in Himself, but what He sees the Father doing, that doeth the Son likewise." See if that's not in your Bible, King James, or Moffatt, or any translation you want to take. See if it isn't the same thing. Get the original Greek Diaglott if you want to. You'll find the same thing. "I do nothing until the--I see the Father..." In other words, He acted out in drama.
61-0412 A.GREATER.THAN.SOLOMON.IS.HERE

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